RES Exam
20 Free RES Practice Questions with Answers and Explanations
Published 15 September 2026
Preparing for the Singapore RES exam? Here are 20 free practice questions covering both Paper 1 and Paper 2, with the answer and explanation directly after each question.
The set mixes single-answer questions, statement-combination questions, calculations and applied scenarios.
There are 10 questions from Paper 1 and 10 from Paper 2.
Try answering each question before reading the explanation. This is a practice set rather than a mock paper, so the mix is designed to expose you to different question styles rather than reproduce the weighting of an actual RES examination.
These are original practice questions, not past CEA examination questions.
Paper 1: 10 RES Practice Questions
Question 1
Which of the following tests is primarily used by courts to determine if an object is a fixture or a fitting (chattel)?
A. The cost of the item.
B. The physical weight of the item.
C. The degree and purpose of annexation.
D. The age of the item.
Answer: C. The degree and purpose of annexation.
Courts consider both how an item is attached to the property and why it was attached.
An object fixed to the land to improve the property permanently is more likely to be treated as a fixture. An item attached only so that the item itself can be enjoyed may remain a fitting or chattel.
The purpose of annexation can be particularly important. Cost, weight and age may be relevant facts in a particular case, but they are not the primary legal tests.
Question 2
A buyer inspects a landed property and asks the seller if there are any termite issues. The seller, knowing the roof is severely infested, replies, “The house is in perfect structural condition.” The buyer purchases the property.
I. This is a case of caveat emptor, so the buyer bears the loss for not hiring a surveyor.
II. The seller committed fraudulent misrepresentation.
III. The seller's statement is a mere puff and not actionable.
IV. The buyer can rescind the contract and claim damages.
A. I and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
Answer: B. II and IV only.
The seller knowingly made a false statement about a material feature of the property after being specifically asked about it. That points to fraudulent misrepresentation, not a mere sales puff.
Caveat emptor does not give a seller a licence to make dishonest statements of fact.
Where a buyer is induced to enter a contract by fraudulent misrepresentation, rescission and damages may be available.
The important distinction is between a buyer failing to investigate something and a seller actively giving the buyer false information.
Question 3
A developer purchases a vacant plot of land measuring 4,000 sqm. The URA Master Plan stipulates a Gross Plot Ratio (GPR) of 2.1 for this site. The developer wishes to maximise the buildable area.
I. The maximum GFA derived from the Master Plan GPR, before any bonus GFA, is 8,400 sqm.
II. Any voids, such as high-ceiling spaces, are fully calculated into the GFA.
III. The developer may be able to build beyond 8,400 sqm if the development qualifies for an applicable URA bonus GFA scheme.
IV. The plot ratio is determined by dividing the site area by the gross floor area.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
Answer: B. I and III only.
Gross Plot Ratio is calculated as:
GPR = GFA ÷ Site Area
So a 4,000 sqm site with a GPR of 2.1 gives a Master Plan GFA of:
4,000 × 2.1 = 8,400 sqm
Statement I is therefore correct.
Statement IV reverses the formula.
Voids are generally excluded from GFA calculations.
Separately, qualifying developments may receive bonus GFA under applicable URA schemes, which can permit GFA above the amount derived from the Master Plan GPR, subject to the relevant conditions.
Question 4
Singapore's property market operates under the Torrens System of land registration. A buyer purchases a private apartment, relying on the Subsidiary Strata Certificate of Title.
I. The “Mirror principle” ensures the register reflects accurately and completely all current facts about the title.
II. The “Curtain principle” requires the buyer's lawyer to trace the historical chain of deeds to ensure a “Good Root of Title”.
III. The “Insurance principle” dictates that the State provides compensation to innocent parties for errors made by the Registrar.
IV. Priority of competing registered interests is determined by the date the instruments were created, not the date they were registered.
A. I and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, III and IV only
Answer: A. I and III only.
The Torrens system is commonly explained through the mirror, curtain and insurance principles.
The mirror principle means the land register is intended to reflect the registered title and interests affecting it.
The curtain principle works in the opposite direction from statement II. A purchaser generally does not have to reconstruct the historical chain of deeds behind the registered title.
The insurance principle is reflected in the statutory compensation framework, although entitlement to compensation depends on the requirements of the Land Titles Act.
Statement IV is also false. Registered interests generally rank according to the order of registration or notification rather than simply the date on which the underlying documents were created.
Question 5
Consider the interventions enacted by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS) in the real estate market:
I. MAS utilises the Total Debt Servicing Ratio (TDSR) to cap a borrower's overall monthly debt obligations.
II. TDSR is categorised as a supply-side intervention designed to increase housing stock.
III. MAS sets Loan-to-Value (LTV) limits to regulate the maximum amount a bank can lend against a property's value.
IV. MAS directly implements and collects the Additional Buyer's Stamp Duty (ABSD) to cool speculative demand.
A. I and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. All of the statements
Answer: A. I and III only.
TDSR and LTV limits are financing controls that constrain how much a borrower can borrow.
They therefore affect demand and financial leverage rather than increasing the physical supply of housing.
Statement II is false because TDSR is not a supply-side measure.
Statement IV is also false. ABSD is a stamp duty on residential property acquisitions and is administered through Singapore's stamp duty system rather than being an MAS mortgage-financing measure.
Question 6
A property owner explicitly tells a third-party buyer, “My brother has full authority to negotiate and bind me to the sale of my house.” The brother signs a contract with the buyer for $1.5 million. The owner later refuses to sell, claiming his brother was never formally appointed as his agent via a written agreement.
I. The owner is not bound because an agency agreement for real estate must be in writing.
II. The owner is “estopped” from denying the agency.
III. This is a valid creation of agency by ostensible or apparent agency.
IV. The buyer can sue the owner for specific performance.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, III and IV only
Answer: C. II, III and IV only.
Apparent or ostensible authority can arise where the principal represents to a third party that another person has authority to act on the principal's behalf, and the third party relies on that representation.
Here, the owner expressly told the buyer that his brother had authority to bind him.
The owner may therefore be estopped from later denying that authority. Statement I is false.
Statement IV is correct because the buyer may sue for specific performance.
Whether the court ultimately grants that equitable remedy remains within the court's discretion.
Question 7
Consider the statutory severance of a Joint Tenancy under the Land Titles Act:
I. A joint tenant can unilaterally sever the tenancy by executing an Instrument of Declaration in the approved form.
II. The severance takes legal effect the exact moment the Instrument is signed and stamped by a lawyer.
III. The Instrument of Declaration must be served on the other joint tenants and must be formally registered to take effect at law.
IV. Statutory severance allows a joint tenant to sever the property into unequal shares, for example a 70/30 split.
A. I and III only
B. II and IV only
C. I and II only
D. III and IV only
Answer: A. I and III only.
The Land Titles Act provides a statutory route by which a joint tenant can sever a joint tenancy using an instrument of declaration.
The process requires more than simply signing the instrument. The statutory requirements include service on the other joint tenant or tenants and registration.
That makes statement II false. Signing the document alone does not complete the statutory severance.
Statement IV is also false.
Severance changes the form of co-ownership from joint tenancy to tenancy in common. It is not a mechanism for one co-owner to unilaterally choose an arbitrary 70/30 ownership split.
Question 8
Analyse the impact of the Civil Law Act on property contracts:
I. A contract for the sale or disposition of land must be in writing or evidenced in writing to be enforceable.
II. An oral agreement to sell a house is completely illegal and void ab initio, meaning void from the beginning.
III. The equitable doctrine of “part performance” can sometimes allow an oral contract for land to be enforced if specific acts have been carried out by the plaintiff.
IV. Email correspondence and WhatsApp messages can never satisfy the writing requirement under the Civil Law Act.
A. I and III only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. II and IV only
Answer: A. I and III only.
The Civil Law Act requires a contract for the sale or other disposition of immovable property, or a memorandum or note of it, to be in writing and signed by the party to be charged or an authorised person.
An oral land contract is not automatically illegal or void. The issue is enforceability, which is why statement II is false.
Part performance can provide an equitable route to enforcement in an appropriate case.
Statement IV is also false. Electronic records can satisfy the writing requirement where the relevant statutory conditions are met.
Question 9
Consider the mechanics of mortgages under the Land Titles Act:
I. A registered mortgage operates strictly as a security charge on the land, not as a transfer of the legal title to the bank.
II. The mortgagor, or borrower, retains the legal fee simple title and ownership of the property during the mortgage term.
III. A bank must obtain SLA's explicit written permission before executing and registering any mortgage.
IV. Upon full repayment of the loan, the bank physically destroys the owner's Certificate of Title to discharge the mortgage.
A. I and III only
B. III and IV only
C. I and II only
D. II and IV only
Answer: C. I and II only.
Under the Land Titles Act, a registered mortgage operates as security for the debt.
It does not transfer ownership of the mortgaged land to the lender. The borrower therefore remains the registered proprietor while the mortgage is in force.
Statement III is false.
A normal mortgage is registered through the land-registration system. It does not require separate case-by-case permission from SLA simply because a bank is lending against the property.
Statement IV is also false.
Repayment is followed by a formal discharge of the registered mortgage. Destroying the Certificate of Title is not the legal mechanism by which the mortgage is discharged.
Question 10
Mr Ahmad lodged a caveat on a property he contracted to buy. Three years later, the seller attempts to register a mortgage on the property to a bank without Mr Ahmad's knowledge.
I. The Registrar will notify Mr Ahmad of the bank's attempt to register the mortgage.
II. Upon receiving the notice, Mr Ahmad has 30 days to obtain a court order extending his caveat, otherwise it will lapse.
III. If Mr Ahmad ignores the notice and the caveat lapses, he can immediately lodge a fresh caveat without requiring court approval.
IV. If no adverse dealings occurred, Mr Ahmad's caveat would have naturally remained valid for a total of 10 years before requiring renewal.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
Answer: A. I and II only.
A caveat protects the caveator's claimed interest by preventing an inconsistent dealing from simply being registered without the caveator being notified.
Where a dealing affecting the caveated interest is lodged, the Registrar serves notice on the caveator.
The caveat will lapse after 30 days from service of that notice unless the court orders a longer period.
Statement III is false because a caveator whose caveat lapses following this process cannot simply defeat the statutory lapse mechanism by immediately lodging another equivalent caveat without satisfying the applicable requirements.
Statement IV is also false.
A caveat ordinarily lapses after five years from lodgment unless it is validly extended.
Paper 2: 10 RES Practice Questions
Question 11
When must a salesperson display their estate agent card?
A. Only when requested by a CEA officer
B. Only when closing a deal
C. At all times when carrying out estate agency work
D. Only during property viewings
Answer: C. At all times when carrying out estate agency work.
A salesperson must display the estate agent card issued by their estate agent at all times when carrying out estate agency work.
The salesperson must also show the card to a person who reasonably asks to see it and allow that person to record information from the card.
The requirement is therefore not limited to viewings, the point at which a transaction is closed, or situations where a regulator asks to see the card.
Question 12
Evaluate the initial administrative procedures in an HDB resale transaction:
I. The seller must register an “Intent to Sell” on the HDB Flat Portal at least 7 days before granting an Option to Purchase (OTP).
II. The prospective buyer must have a valid HDB Flat Eligibility (HFE) letter before they can obtain an OTP from the seller.
III. The OTP must be drafted from scratch by the seller's lawyer to include custom legal clauses protecting the seller.
IV. A buyer must exercise the OTP immediately on the same day it is granted to legally secure the flat.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I and IV only
Answer: A. I and II only.
HDB sellers must have a valid Intent to Sell for at least 7 days before granting an OTP.
Buyers must also have a valid HFE Letter when the seller grants the OTP.
Statement III is false because HDB requires sellers and buyers to use its prescribed OTP form rather than drafting their own version.
Statement IV is also false.
The prescribed option period is 21 calendar days, so the buyer does not have to exercise the OTP on the day it is granted.
Question 13
Salesperson A represents the seller, and Salesperson B represents the buyer in a private treaty transaction. Both salespersons work for the same estate agent.
I. This scenario does not constitute illegal dual representation under the Estate Agents Act.
II. Salesperson A can legally collect a commission from both the seller and the buyer if both parties sign a consent form.
III. Because A and B are from the same estate agent, they must declare this potential conflict of interest in writing to their respective clients.
IV. The law dictates that co-broking agents must split the total commission equally, 50-50.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, III and IV only
Answer: B. I and III only.
Dual representation occurs when the same salesperson represents both sides of the same property transaction.
Having two different salespersons from the same estate agent represent opposing parties is therefore not, by itself, prohibited dual representation.
However, the potential conflict arising from both salespersons being with the same estate agent must be disclosed in writing to their respective clients.
Statement II is false.
A salesperson cannot collect commission from both opposing parties merely because they consent.
Statement IV is also false.
Commission and co-broking arrangements are not subject to a statutory 50-50 split.
Question 14
Mr and Mrs Tan, both Singapore Citizens aged 30, are buying a 5-room resale flat for $700,000. It is their first property. Calculate the Buyer's Stamp Duty (BSD) payable.
A. $9,600
B. $13,600
C. $15,600
D. $16,000
Answer: C. $15,600.
For a residential property valued at $700,000:
First $180,000 × 1% = $1,800
Next $180,000 × 2% = $3,600
Remaining $340,000 × 3% = $10,200
Therefore:
$1,800 + $3,600 + $10,200 = $15,600
Question 15
A salesperson is marketing a unit within an industrial B1 development.
I. URA requires at least 60% of the total GFA of an industrial development to be used for core industrial activities.
II. The remaining 40% can be freely used for independent retail shops to maximise rental yields.
III. Childcare centres may be allowed as an ancillary use within the 40% quantum, subject to planning approval.
IV. An ancillary office can be subdivided and sold separately from the main factory space.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I, III and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
Answer: B. I and III only.
For B1 industrial developments, at least 60% of the GFA must be used for the predominant industrial use, while up to 40% may be used for ancillary or supporting uses.
Statement II is false because the 40% is not a free commercial-use allowance.
Independent retail use does not automatically qualify merely because it falls within that percentage.
Statement III is correct.
Childcare centres may be allowed as an ancillary use, subject to the relevant planning approvals.
Statement IV is false.
Ancillary office space is supporting space within the industrial-use structure, not a mechanism for creating a separate standalone office unit.
Question 16
A salesperson is assisting a tenant who wishes to pay a security deposit to the landlord.
I. Under regulation 7 of the Estate Agents (Estate Agency Work) Regulations 2010, a salesperson must not hold or handle transaction monies for the lease of HDB property.
II. A breach may result in a fine of up to $10,000, imprisonment for up to 6 months, or both.
III. The salesperson may deliver a crossed account-payee cheque made payable directly to the landlord.
IV. The salesperson can handle cash if the tenant signs a formal indemnity releasing the salesperson from liability.
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, III and IV only
Answer: B. I, II and III only.
Regulation 7 prohibits an estate agent or salesperson from holding or handling transaction money relating to the sale or purchase of Singapore property or the lease of HDB property.
However, the salesperson may deliver a crossed account-payee cheque or cashier's order made payable directly to another party to the transaction.
That is why statement III is correct.
An indemnity from a client cannot override the statutory prohibition, so statement IV is false.
A breach may carry a fine of up to $10,000, imprisonment for up to 6 months, or both.
Question 17
When facilitating a residential lease involving a foreign tenant, which of the following should a salesperson do as part of the required due diligence checks?
A. Retain the tenant's original passport for the duration of the tenancy.
B. Check the tenant's passport and applicable immigration, work, student or other pass, and verify the pass through the relevant official records.
C. Ask the landlord to interview the tenant and rely on the landlord's assessment.
D. Only facilitate leases to Singapore Citizens to avoid immigration-related checks.
Answer: B. Check the tenant's passport and applicable immigration, work, student or other pass, and verify the pass through the relevant official records.
Due diligence is not limited to checking one particular type of work pass.
Depending on the foreign tenant or occupier, the relevant document may be an immigration pass, work pass, student pass or another applicable pass.
The salesperson should check the relevant identification documents, compare them with the person and passport, and verify the applicable pass through the appropriate official records.
The purpose is to verify the tenant's identity and immigration status, not to retain the tenant's original passport.
Question 18
A commercial space is leased for 3 years. The rent includes a fixed base rent of $4,000 per month, plus a fixed service charge of $500 per month.
Additionally, the tenant pays 5% of gross sales turnover as rent, which is estimated to be $1,500 per month.
What is the total stamp duty on the lease?
A. $576
B. $648
C. $864
D. $720
Answer: C. $864.
First calculate the estimated monthly rent subject to lease duty:
Base rent: $4,000
Service charge: $500
Estimated turnover rent: $1,500
Total estimated monthly rent:
$4,000 + $500 + $1,500 = $6,000
For 36 months:
$6,000 × 36 = $216,000
For a lease of four years or less, the lease duty is 0.4% of total rent:
$216,000 × 0.4% = $864
Question 19
A married couple, one Singapore Citizen and one Singapore Permanent Resident, currently own one private condominium under joint tenancy.
They decide to jointly purchase a second private condominium.
Which statement is true regarding their Additional Buyer's Stamp Duty (ABSD) liability and refund eligibility?
A. They will pay 20% ABSD upfront and are eligible for an ABSD refund if they sell their first condo within 6 months.
B. They will pay 30% ABSD upfront and may be eligible for an ABSD refund if they sell their first condo within 6 months and satisfy the other remission conditions.
C. They will pay 30% ABSD upfront but are not eligible for an ABSD refund.
D. They will pay 20% ABSD upfront but are not eligible for an ABSD refund.
Answer: B. They will pay 30% ABSD upfront and may be eligible for an ABSD refund if they sell their first condo within 6 months and satisfy the other remission conditions.
Where an SC and SPR married couple jointly buy a second residential property, the applicable ABSD is the higher rate arising from the SPR spouse's profile.
For an SPR purchasing a second residential property, that rate is 30%.
The couple may subsequently qualify for the married-couple ABSD refund if the remission conditions are met, including disposal of the first residential property within the applicable six-month period.
Selling within six months is therefore not the only condition required for a refund.
Question 20
A landlord rents his fully furnished condominium for $7,500 per month for the whole year.
He incurs the following expenses:
Mortgage interest: $20,000
Mortgage principal: $12,000
New air-conditioning system installed as a capital improvement rather than a repair or like-for-like replacement: $5,000
Property tax: $3,500
Fire insurance: $1,200
Agent commission for a replacement tenant: $4,500
If he chooses the method that gives him the lowest net taxable rental income, what is his net taxable rent?
A. $56,500
B. $60,800
C. $51,800
D. $41,500
Answer: A. $56,500.
Gross annual rent is:
$7,500 × 12 = $90,000
Using actual allowable expenses:
Mortgage interest: $20,000
Property tax: $3,500
Fire insurance: $1,200
Agent commission: $4,500
Total allowable actual expenses:
$29,200
Net taxable rent:
$90,000 − $29,200 = $60,800
The mortgage principal is not deductible.
The $5,000 air-conditioning expenditure is a capital improvement, so it is also excluded from the actual-expense calculation.
Alternatively, using the 15% deemed-expense method, with qualifying mortgage interest claimed separately:
15% of $90,000 = $13,500
Total deduction:
$13,500 + $20,000 = $33,500
Net taxable rent:
$90,000 − $33,500 = $56,500
The deemed-expense method therefore produces the lower taxable rental income.
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Keep Practising
If you found the statement-combination questions difficult, read How to Read RES MCQ Questions Without Falling for Traps for a step-by-step way to break down long stems and test each option against the exact question being asked.
If you are preparing for the revised syllabus, see 2027 RES Exam Syllabus Changes: New Topics and Transition Rules for what changes from 1 January 2027.
Official Sources
The questions and explanations above are based on current Singapore legislation and guidance from the relevant authorities. Key references include:
Singapore Statutes Online: Land Titles Act 1993, Civil Law Act 1909, and Estate Agents (Estate Agency Work) Regulations 2010. These cover the land-registration, contract, caveat, mortgage, transaction-money and estate agent card rules used in several questions. Singapore Statutes Online: Land Titles Act 1993 Singapore Statutes Online: Civil Law Act 1909 Singapore Statutes Online: Estate Agents (Estate Agency Work) Regulations 2010
Housing & Development Board (HDB): HDB resale procedures, including Intent to Sell, HFE Letter requirements and the prescribed Option to Purchase process. HDB: Option to Purchase for a Resale Flat
Urban Redevelopment Authority (URA): Gross Floor Area and Gross Plot Ratio rules, bonus GFA guidance, and the 60/40 use quantum for B1 industrial developments. URA: Gross Floor Area URA: B1 Use Quantum
Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore (IRAS): Buyer's Stamp Duty, Additional Buyer's Stamp Duty, lease duty and the tax treatment of rental income and deductible expenses. IRAS: Buyer's Stamp Duty IRAS: Additional Buyer's Stamp Duty IRAS: Renting a Property IRAS: Income from Property Rented Out
Rules and rates can change. Check the latest official guidance when preparing for the RES examination or applying these rules to an actual property transaction.